The Best IIA-CIA-Part2 Exam Study Material Premium Files and Preparation Tool (Sep-2026) [Q186-Q206]

The Best IIA-CIA-Part2 Exam Study Material Premium Files and Preparation Tool (Sep-2026)

Get Instant Access to IIA-CIA-Part2 Practice Exam Questions

QUESTION 186
The audit plan of an internal audit function includes an assurance engagement of the organization’s cybersecurity protocols. However, the engagement supervisor assigned to execute the engagement identifies that the internal auditors with competencies in cybersecurity are scheduled for upcoming leave and are involved in other engagements. Those auditors would not be available to participate in the cybersecurity engagement. Which of the following would be the appropriate action for the engagement supervisor?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 187
Which of the following scenarios is an example of appropriate engagement supervision?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 188
The chief audit executive (CAE) notes that management has adopted the option of not takingaction on an audit issue involving a sizeable risk which has been accepted in the past.Which would be an appropriate action by the CAE?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 189
A chief audit executive (CAE) is trying to balance the internal audit activity’s needs for technical audit skills budget efficiency and staff development opportunities. Which of the following would best assist the CAE in achieving this balance1?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 190
A corporate merger decision prompts the chief audit executive (CAE) lo propose interim changes to the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan”

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 191
Which of the following is not a reason for an internal auditor to prepare an audit plan before the detailed audit work begins?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 192
Which of the following engagement techniques would be best to meet the objective of denting a personal conflict -of -interest situation affecting an organization’s procurement function?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 193
An internal auditor used a risk and control matrix to prepare a work program for testing a software release.
During the engagement planning stage, he tested the design of
the release procedure as a key control and concluded that the control was not designed well. During the performance stage, he tested the operation of this control and concluded that it was implemented as designed. Which of the following statements is true regarding this scenario?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 194
When establishing the internal audit activity’s annual plan, which of the following would be the best source of potential audit engagement topics?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 195
A code of business conduct should include which of the following to increase its deterrent effect?
1. Appropriate descriptions of penalties for misconduct.
2. A notification that code of conduct violations may lead to criminal prosecution.
3. A description of violations that injure the interests of the employer.
4. A list of employees covered by the code of conduct.

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 196
An internal auditor reviewed bank reconciliations prepared by management of the area under review. The auditor noted that the bank statements attached did not have the bank heading, logo, or address. Which of the following statements is true regarding this situation?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 197
According to an internal audit observation, the organization’s rules of record management require all contracts to be registered and stored in a specific electronic system. One subsidiary has thousands of client contracts on paper, which are kept in the office because there are not enough assistants to scan the contracts into the system. Which of the following component should be added to this observation?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 198
According to the Standards, which of the following is an attribute when applied to the observations and recommendations contained in the audit report?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 199
An internal auditor is examining the organization’s internal control processes. Which of the following would the auditor do to test the reliability of a customer database1?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 200
According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding the internal audit charter is true?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 201
During a consulting engagement, an internal auditor identifies new risks which will impact the scope and sufficiency of the engagement audit plan. According to the Standards, the internal auditor should:

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 202
What is the purpose of an internal control questionnaire?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 203
During an audit, an employee, who does not want to be identified, offers to provide information that would be damaging to the organization and may concern illegal activities. Which of the following actions by the auditor would not be consistent with the IIA Code of Ethics and Standards?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 204
Which of the following is true regarding the monitoring of internal audit activities?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 205
Which of the following is the primary reason to develop an audit work program?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 206
According to the International Professional Practices Framework, which of the following situations is an indicator of a healthy relationship between the audit committee and the internal audit function?

 
 
 
 

IIA-CIA-Part2 certification exam, commonly referred to as the Practice of Internal Auditing, is an internationally recognized certification exam that is designed to test the knowledge and skills of internal auditors. IIA-CIA-Part2 exam is developed and administered by the Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA), which is a global professional association for internal auditors. The IIA-CIA-Part2 exam is one of the three exams that candidates must pass to earn the Certified Internal Auditor (CIA) designation.

IIA-CIA-Part2 exam covers a wide range of topics related to internal auditing, including internal control and risk management, fraud detection and prevention, governance and ethics, and communication skills. IIA-CIA-Part2 exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions, which must be completed within 2.5 hours. To pass the exam, candidates must achieve a minimum score of 600 out of a possible 800 points.

 

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