[Jul 31, 2026] Fully Updated PK0-005 Dumps – 100% Same Q&A In Your Real Exam [Q25-Q42]

Posted On July 31, 2026

[Jul 31, 2026] Fully Updated PK0-005 Dumps – 100% Same Q&A In Your Real Exam

Latest PK0-005 Exam Dumps – Valid and Updated Dumps

CompTIA PK0-005 certification exam is an ideal choice for candidates who are looking to improve their project management skills and knowledge. CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam certification exam provides candidates with a competitive advantage in the job market and helps them to stand out from other candidates. CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam certification also provides employers with the confidence that the certified professional has the necessary skills and knowledge to manage projects effectively.

NO.25 After determining the appropriate maintenance window, which of the following should occur NEXT in the operational infrastructure change process?

Implement the change.

Approve the test plan.

Notify customers.

Develop a rollback plan.

The project manager should develop a rollback plan next after determining the appropriate maintenance window in the operational infrastructure change process. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to revert to the previous state of the system or infrastructure in case of a failure or disruption during the change implementation. A rollback plan can help to minimize the impact and risk of the change and ensure business continuity and stability.

NO.26 A project team is working remotely from different locations across the country. As part of a lessons-learned exercise, the project manager would like to identify the level of engagement among project team members. Which of the following would be the best tool for the project manager to use?

Real-time survey

Meeting chat

Whiteboard

NO.27 A PM is meeting with the project team to identify the baseline go-live date, the operational training, and the handoff procedures. Which of the following phases is the project team performing?

Initiation

Closing

Execution

Planning

The closing phase is when the project manager and the team finalize the project, deliver the outcomes to the customer, obtain formal acceptance, conduct lessons learned, and hand over the project to the operations team. Identifying the baseline go-live date, the operational training, and the handoff procedures are part of the closing activities that ensure a smooth transition and closure of the project. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 14: Closing Projects, p. 333-334.

NO.28 During the testing phase of a project, the legal department rejected a deliverable due to compliance issues. The project manager reviewed the risk register and triggered the mitigation plan for this item. Which of the following documents should the project manager update next?

Schedule

Status report

Issue log

Task board

An issue log is a document that records and tracks any issues that arise during a project and how they are resolved1. It is different from a risk register, which records and tracks potential risks that may or may not occur during a project2. When a risk becomes an issue, it means that it has occurred and has a negative impact on the project. Therefore, the project manager should update the issue log next to document the compliance issue, its cause, its impact, its priority, its owner, and its resolution status3. Updating the issue log will help the project manager communicate the issue to the stakeholders, monitor the progress of the mitigation plan, and prevent similar issues from happening again4. References = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 11: Executing Projects Part 2, page 331; Project Risk Mitigation Guide + Starter Kit | Smartsheet, Risk Register section; How to Make a Risk Management Plan (Template Included) – ProjectManager, Risk Register section; Issue Log – Project Management Knowledge, Introduction section; Issue Log Template: Free Download | ProjectManager, Introduction and How to Use an Issue Log sections.

NO.29 The sales department accidentally has access to all project files, including employee personal information.
Which of the following security concepts is this violating?

Need-to-know

Intellectual property

Multifactor authentication

Facility access

This violates the need-to-know principle because employees in the sales department should only have access to information required to perform their job responsibilities. Granting broad access to project files-especially files containing employee personal information-is an access control failure: permissions are too open and not aligned to role-based necessity. CompTIA Project+ emphasizes compliance and information security considerations that affect projects, including the expectation that sensitive information is protected through appropriate controls and access restrictions.
“Intellectual property” (B) concerns ownership and protection of creations (designs, trademarks, code, patents), not role-based access to personal data. “Multifactor authentication” (C) is an authentication mechanism that strengthens login security, but the scenario is about authorization/permissions (who is allowed to access what) rather than proving identity. “Facility access” (D) relates to physical security of locations, not digital file permissions.
In practice, the PM would coordinate with security/IT to correct access groups, implement least-privilege and role-based access control, and ensure sensitive data (like employee PII) is stored and shared with stricter controls-consistent with Project+ governance expectations around handling sensitive information appropriately.

NO.30 A new junior PM who has ownership of a project does not understand how to manage conflicts involving multiple personalities. Which of the following is the best order of the stages the PM should follow to nurture the team to high performance?

Forming, storming, performing, norming, adjourning

Forming, performing, storming, norming, adjourning

Forming, norming, storming, performing, adjourning

Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

This is the correct order of the stages of team development according to Tuckman’s model123. The forming stage is where team members first meet and get acquainted. The storming stage is where team members experience conflicts and disagreements. The norming stage is where team members resolve their differences and establish norms and rules. The performing stage is where team members work together effectively and efficiently. The adjourning stage is where team members complete the project and celebrate their achievements. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Project Team Management, p. 197; The 5 Stages of Team Development (Including Examples) | Upwork; The 5 Stages of Team Development – Teamwork; Using the Stages of Team Development | MIT Human Resources

NO.31 A project manager has decided to wait until all requirements are developed to initiate testing. Which of the following relationship dependencies is the project manager using?

Start-to-finish

Finish-to-finish

Finish-to-start

Start-to-start

A finish-to-start dependency is a type of relationship dependency in project management, where the start of one task depends on the finish of another task12. In this case, the project manager is using a finish-to-start dependency, because testing cannot start until requirements development is finished. This implies that testing is a successor task, and requirements development is a predecessor task. A finish-to-start dependency is the most common type of dependency in project management, and it ensures that tasks are performed in a logical sequence34. Reference = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide5, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives6, Understanding Dependencies in Project Management [2023] * Asana1, Dependencies in Project Management | Smartsheet2, Understanding Task Dependencies in Project Management3, What are Dependencies in Project Management? – KnowledgeHut4

NO.32 A software development team completed the development and testing of a new accounting software system for a client. Which of the following should the team do next?

User acceptance testing

Unit testing

Performance testing

Audits and inspections

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
User acceptance testing (UAT) is the final phase of the testing process where the client or end users validate that the software meets their needs. Since development and testing have already been completed, UAT is the next logical step before deployment.
Reference:
CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Official Study Guide, Chapter 9: Testing and Quality Assurance

NO.33 Project stakeholders have asked the team to use Scrum to run a software implementation project. Which of the
following is most likely to take place during a Scrum ceremony?

Reviewing project blockers

Defining roles and responsibilities

Establishing a project schedule

Determining a project budget

According to Four agile ceremonies, demystified, one of the Scrum ceremonies is the daily stand-up, which is
a short meeting to discuss progress and identify blockers. Blockers are any issues or impediments that prevent
the team from completing their tasks or achieving their goals. Reviewing project blockers during the daily
stand-up helps the team to resolve them quickly, collaborate effectively, and stay on track1. The other options
are not likely to take place during a Scrum ceremony, as they are either part of the initial project planning or
outside the scope of Scrum.

NO.34 A project manager prefers to have immediate contact with team members because it allows for faster response times and more interactive discussions. Which of the following communication methods should the project manager use?

Synchronous

Informal

Asynchronous

Formal

The project manager should use synchronous communication methods if they prefer to have immediate contact with team members. Synchronous communication is a type of communication that occurs in real time and allows for faster response times and more interactive discussions. Examples of synchronous communication methods include phone calls, video conferences, instant messaging, and face-to-face meetings. Synchronous communication can help to build rapport, clarify doubts, and resolve issues quickly among team members.
Synchronous communication should be used when the project manager prefers to have immediate contact with team members. Synchronous communication allows for real-time interaction and feedback, enabling faster response times and more interactive discussions. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.1.3

NO.35 Which of the following would be best to utilize when managing communications for project teams across multiple time zones?

Business collaboration tool

Virtual meetings

Enterprise CMS

A business collaboration tool is a software that enables teams to communicate, share, and create together online. A business collaboration tool can help project teams across multiple time zones to overcome the challenges of distance, time differences, and cultural diversity. A business collaboration tool can provide features such as instant messaging, video conferencing, file sharing, document editing, project management, and more. A business collaboration tool can also integrate with other applications and platforms that the project team uses. A business collaboration tool can improve the efficiency, productivity, and quality of the project team’s work12. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter
4: Project Communications, p. 137; The 15 best collaboration tools for productive teams – Workable; 17 Best Business Collaboration Tools for Teams – Venngage

NO.36 Which of the following can a project manager infer from the following velocity chart?

The project is on schedule.

The project Is ahead of schedule.

The project is behind schedule.

The project is at risk.

The velocity chart typically shows the amount of work completed over time. If the “Actual Effort” line is below the “Planned Timeline,” it indicates that the project is not progressing as fast as planned, hence it is behind schedule. This is inferred by comparing the actual work completed against what was scheduled.
Reference = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical interpretation of velocity charts in project management. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources.

NO.37 An external developer working on a project at an hourly rate provides an invoice at the end of a month for 80 hours spent on a project. The project manager realizes that there were no tasks assigned to this developer last month. Which of the following actions should the project manager take first?

Consult other developers.

Escalate the issue to the project steering committee.

Request the developer provide justification.

Decline the invoice.

The project manager should first request justification from the developer because the invoice must be validated before approval, rejection, or escalation. In project procurement and vendor management, invoices should be checked against assigned work, timesheets, deliverables, contract terms, purchase orders, and approvals. Since no tasks were assigned, there may be an error, unrecorded work, emergency support, misunderstanding, or unauthorized billing. Asking for justification creates a factual basis for the next decision and protects the project from paying unsupported costs. Declining the invoice immediately may be premature if legitimate work was performed but not properly documented. Escalating to the steering committee should occur only after initial verification fails or a material dispute exists. Consulting other developers is indirect and less appropriate as the first step.

NO.38 A project manager operating within a functional organizational structure is trying to avoid a project roadblock due to a mobilization fee that has not been paid to a contractor. Which of the following should the project manager do first?

Authorize payment from the contingency budget.

Follow up on the payment request with the payable clerk.

Negotiate with the contractor to be paid later in the project.

Escalate the issue to the financial controller.

The project manager should first follow up on the payment request with the payable clerk because this is the most direct and appropriate first action to understand the payment status. In a functional organizational structure, authority over finance, procurement, and accounts payable usually belongs to functional departments rather than the project manager. The project manager should coordinate and remove obstacles, but should not bypass normal financial controls or authorize payment from contingency funds without proper authority. Negotiating with the contractor may be necessary later, but only after confirming whether the payment is pending, blocked, missing documentation, or delayed by process. Escalating to the financial controller is appropriate if routine follow-up does not resolve the issue or if the delay creates serious project impact.

NO.39 Which of the following is a test that is done on an existing system to ensure the previous functionality still
works after a change has been made?

Smoke testing

Regression testing

Unit testing

User acceptance testing

Regression testing is a type of testing that is done on an existing system to ensure that the previous
functionality still works after a change has been made. Regression testing is a process of retesting or verifying
that a software system or application still performs as expected after it has been modified or updated with new
features, bug fixes, patches, etc. Regression testing can help to detect any errors or defects that may have been
introduced by the change and ensure that no functionality has been broken or degraded.

NO.40 A project manager was just assigned to a new project. Which of the following activities should the project
manager undertake after accepting the project? (Select TWO).

Review the detailed plan.

Develop a preliminary scope.

Develop a transition plan.

Develop a project management plan.

Review the resource pool.

Review the project objectives.

Review the resource pool and review the project objectives are activities that the project manager should
undertake after accepting a new project. Reviewing the resource pool involves identifying and evaluating the
availability, skills, and competencies of the human and material resources that are needed for the project.
Reviewing the project objectives involves understanding and clarifying the expected outcomes and benefits of
the project and how they align with the organizational strategy and stakeholder expectations. These activities
can help to plan and execute the project effectively and efficiently.

NO.41 A project team has just experienced an unexpected event and implemented a work-around. Which of the following documents should be used to record the event? (Select TWO).

Risk report

Defect log

Issue log

Backlog

Change log

Progress report

Explanation
Issue log and change log are documents that should be used to record the event where the project team has just experienced an unexpected event and implemented a work-around. An issue log is a document that tracks and records any issues or problems that arise during a project and how they are resolved. An issue log can help to monitor and control the project performance and quality and prevent any negative impacts on the project objectives and deliverables. A change log is a document that tracks and records any changes or modifications that are made to the project scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources during a project. A change log can help to document the change request, approval, implementation, and impact of each change and ensure traceability and transparency.

NO.42 A project manager decided to host the development environment on a cloud service. Which of the following would the project manager most likely use for this purpose?

IaaS

XaaS

DaaS

SaaS

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides virtualized computing resources, such as storage and servers, necessary for hosting a development environment. According to CompTIA Project+, IaaS is ideal for environments requiring infrastructure control without hardware management.

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CompTIA PK0-005: CompTIA Project+ Certification is an excellent certification program for individuals who want to pursue a career in project management or want to enhance their skills in this field. CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam certification validates an individual’s knowledge and skills in project management and is globally recognized. PK0-005 exam covers project management principles, including project initiation, planning, execution, monitoring and control, and project closure, and project communication, risk management, and project resources management. PK0-005 exam is suitable for project managers, project coordinators, team leaders, and those who are involved in project management in any capacity.

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