[Dec-2023] Symantec 250-561 Dumps – Secret To Pass in First Attempt [Q36-Q50]

Q36. Which dashboard should an administrator access to view the current health of the environment?

The Antimalware Dashboard

The SES Dashboard

The Device Integrity Dashboard

The Security Control Dashboard

Q37. Which alert rule category includes events that are generated about the cloud console?

Security

Diagnostic

System

Application Activity

Q38. What option must an administrator choose when rolling back a policy assignment to a previous version?

Customize

Reverse

Override

Go Back

Q39. What are two (2) benefits of a fully cloud managed endpoint protection solution? (Select two)

Increased content update frequency

Increased visibility

Reduced 3rd party licensing cost

Reduced database usage

Reduced network usage

Q40. Which two (2) skill areas are critical to the success of incident Response Teams (Select two)

Project Management

Incident Management

Cyber Intelligence

Incident Response

Threat Analysis

Q41. An administrator suspects that several computers have become part of a botnet. What should the administrator do to detect botnet activity on the network?

Enable the Command and Control Server Firewall

Add botnet related signatures to the IPS policy’s Audit Signatures list

Enable the IPS policy’s Show notification on the device setting

Set the Antimalware policy’s Monitoring Level to 4

Q42. Which type of security threat is used by attackers to exploit vulnerable applications?

Lateral Movement

Privilege Escalation

Command and Control

Credential Access

Q43. What characterizes an emerging threat in comparison to traditional threat?

Emerging threats are undetectable by signature based engines.

Emerging threats are more sophisticated than traditional threats.

Emerging threats requires artificial intelligence to be detected.

Emerging threats use new techniques and 0-day vulnerability to propagate.

Q44. Which Antimalware technology is used after all local resources have been exhausted?

Sapient

ITCS

Emulator

Reputation

Q45. After editing and saving a policy, an administrator is prompted with the option to apply the edited policy to any assigned device groups.
What happens to the new version of the policy if the administrator declines the option to apply it?

The policy display is returned to edit mode

The new version of the policy is deleted

An unassigned version of the policy is created

The new version of the policy is added to the “in progress” list

Q46. Which policy should an administrator edit to utilize the Symantec LiveUpdate server for pre-release content?

The Firewall Policy

The System Schedule Policy

The System Policy

The LiveUpdate Policy

Q47. In the ICDm, administrators are assisted by the My Task view. Which automation type creates the tasks within the console?

Artificial Intelligence

Machine Learning

Advanced Machine Learning

Administrator defined rules

Q48. Which term or expression is utilized when adversaries leverage existing tools in the environment?

opportunistic attack

script kiddies

living off the land

file-less attack

Q49. A user downloads and opens a PDF file with Adobe Acrobat. Unknown to the user, a hidden script in the file begins downloading a RAT.
Which Anti-malware engine recognizes that this behavior is inconsistent with normal Acrobat functionality, blocks the behavior and kills Acrobat?

SONAR

Sapient

IPS

Emulator

Q50. In which phase of MITRE framework would attackers exploit faults in software to directly tamper with system memory?

Exfiltration

Discovery

Execution

Defense Evasion