[Aug-2023] Download Real ISACA CRISC Exam Dumps Test Engine Exam Questions [Q46-Q68]

Posted On August 27, 2023

[Aug-2023] Download Real ISACA CRISC Exam Dumps Test Engine Exam Questions

New CRISC exam dumps Use Updated ISACA Exam

To pass the CRISC exam, candidates must demonstrate a deep understanding of the principles and concepts related to risk management and information systems control. CRISC exam is rigorous and challenging, requiring a significant amount of study and preparation. However, those who pass the exam are rewarded with a highly respected and valuable credential that can open up many career opportunities in the field of IT risk management and information security.

Q46. Which of the following should be an element of the risk appetite of an organization?

The effectiveness of compensating controls

The enterprise’s capacity to absorb loss

The residual risk affected by preventive controls

The amount of inherent risk considered appropriate

Q47. Which of the following is the ULTIMATE goal of conducting a privacy impact analysis (PIA)?

To identify gaps in data protection controls

To develop a customer notification plan

To identify personally identifiable information (Pll)

To determine gaps in data identification processes

Q48. An organization has determined a risk scenario is outside the defined risk tolerance level. What should be the NEXT course of action?

Develop a compensating control.

Allocate remediation resources.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

Identify risk responses

Q49. Which of the following is MOST important when defining controls?

Identifying monitoring mechanisms

Including them in the risk register

Aligning them with business objectives

Prototyping compensating controls

Q50. A review of an organization’s controls has determined its data loss prevention (DLP) system is currently failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data.
Which of the following would be MOST impacted?

Risk appetite

Residual risk

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

Inherent risk

Section: Volume D

Q51. You are the project manager of a large networking project. During the execution phase the customer requests for a change in the existing project plan. What will be your immediate action?

Update the risk register.

Ask for a formal change request.

Ignore the request as the project is in the execution phase.

Refuse the change request.

Section: Volume A
Explanation:
Whenever the customer or key stakeholder asks for a change in the existing plan, you should ask him/her to submit a formal change request. Change requests may modify project policies or procedures, project scope, project cost or budget, project schedule, or project quality.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: The first action required is to create a formal change request, if a change is requested in the project.

Q52. Tom works as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. He is determining which risks can affect the project.
Which of the following inputs of the identify risks process is useful in identifying risks, and provides a quantitative assessment of the likely cost to complete the scheduled activities?

Activity duration estimates

Risk management plan

Cost management plan

Activity cost estimates

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The activity cost estimates review is valuable in identifying risks as it provides a quantitative assessment of the expected cost to complete the scheduled activities and is expressed as a range, with a width of the range indicating the degrees of risk.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The activity duration estimates review is valuable in identifying risks associated to the time allowances for the activities or projects as a whole, with a width of the range indicating the degrees of risk.
B: This is the output of plan risk management process. A Risk management plan is a document arranged by a project manager to estimate the effectiveness, predict risks, and build response plans to mitigate them. It also consists of the risk assessment matrix.
C: The cost management plan sets how the costs on a project are managed during the project’s lifecycle. It defines the format and principles by which the project costs are measured, reported, and controlled. The cost management plan identifies the person responsible for managing costs, those who have the authority to approve changes to the project or its budget, and how cost performance is quantitatively calculated and reported upon.

Q53. You are the project manager for BlueWell Inc. You have noticed that the risk level in your project increases above the risk tolerance level of your enterprise. You have applied several risk responses. Now you have to update the risk register in accordance to risk response process. All of the following are included in the risk register except for which item?

Risk triggers

Agreed-upon response strategies

Network diagram analysis of critical path activities

Risk owners and their responsibility

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The risk register does not examine the network diagram and the critical path. There may be risks associated with the activities on the network diagram, but it does not address the network diagram directly.
The risk register is updated at the end of the plan risk response process with the information that was discovered during the process. The response plans are recorded in the risk register. In the risk register, risk is stated in order of priority, i.e., those with the highest potential for threat or opportunity first. Some risks might not require response plans at all, but then too they should be put on a watch list and monitored throughout the project. Following elements should appear in the risk register:
List of identified risks, including their descriptions, root causes, and how the risks impact the project

objectives
Risk owners and their responsibility

Outputs from the Perform Qualitative Analysis process

Agreed-upon response strategies

Risk triggers

Cost and schedule activities needed to implement risk responses

Contingency plans

Fallback plans, which are risk response plans that are executed when the initial risk response plan

proves to be ineffective
Contingency reserves

Residual risk, which is a leftover risk that remains after the risk response strategy has been

implemented
Secondary risks, which are risks that come about as a result of implementing a risk response

Q54. You are the project manager of the GHT project. You are accessing data for further analysis. You have chosen such a data extraction method in which management monitors its own controls. Which of the following data extraction methods you are using here?

Extracting data directly from the source systems after system owner approval

Extracting data from the system custodian (IT) after system owner approval

Extracting data from risk register

Extracting data from lesson learned register

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Direct extraction from the source system involves management monitoring its own controls, instead of auditors/third parties monitoring management’s controls. It is preferable over extraction from the system custodian.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Extracting data from the system custodian (IT) after system owner approval, involves auditors or third parties monitoring management’s controls. Here, in this management does not monitors its own control.
C, D: These are not data extraction methods.

Q55. Recovery the objectives (RTOs) should be based on

minimum tolerable downtime

minimum tolerable loss of data.

maximum tolerable downtime.

maximum tolerable loss of data

Q56. Where are all risks and risk responses documented as the project progresses?

Risk management plan

Project management plan

Risk response plan

Risk register

Section: Volume A
Explanation:
All risks, their responses, and other characteristics are documented in the risk register. As the project progresses and the conditions of the risk events change, the risk register should be updated to reflect the risk conditions.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The risk management plan addresses the project management’s approach to risk management, risk identification, analysis, response, and control.
B: The project management plan is the overarching plan for the project, not the specifics of the risk responses and risk identification.
C: The risk response plan only addresses the planned risk responses for the identified risk events in the risk register.

Q57. A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?

An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks

An increase in attempted website phishing attacks

A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities

A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)

Section: Volume D
Explanation

Q58. You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk events?

These risks can be dismissed.

These risks can be accepted.

These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.

All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.

Explanation:
Low-impact, low-probability risks can be added to the low priority risk watch list.

is incorrect. While these risks may be accepted, they should be documented on the low
priority risk watch list. This list will be periodically reviewed and the status of the risks may change.

is incorrect. These risks are not dismissed; they are still documented on the low priority
risk watch list.

is incorrect. Not every risk demands a risk response, so this choice is incorrect.

Q59. To define the risk management strategy which of the following MUST be set by the board of directors?

Operational strategies

Risk governance

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

Risk appetite

Q60. You are the project manager of HJT project. Important confidential files of your project are stored on a computer. Keeping the unauthorized access of this computer in mind, you have placed a hidden CCTV in the room, even on having protection password. Which kind of control CCTV is?

Technical control

Physical control

Administrative control

Management control

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CCTV is a physical control.
Physical controls protect the physical environment. They include basics such as locks to protect access to secure areas. They also include environmental controls. This section presents the following examples of physical controls:
Locked doors, guards, access logs, and closed-circuit television

Fire detection and suppression

Temperature and humidity detection

Electrical grounding and circuit breakers

Water detection

Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D CCTV is a physical control.

Q61. Risk management strategies are PRIMARILY adopted to:

take necessary precautions for claims and losses.

achieve acceptable residual risk levels.

avoid risk for business and IT assets.

achieve compliance with legal requirements.

Q62. You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are preparing to plan risk responses for your project with your team. How many risk response types are available for a negative risk event in the project?

Section: Volume C
Explanation:
Four risk response options are there to deal with negative risks or threats on the project objectives- avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept.
* Risk avoidance
* Risk mitigation
* Risk transfer
* Risk acceptance
Incorrect Answers:
A, B ,C: These are incorrect choices as only 4 risk response are available to deal with negative risks.

Q63. A teaming agreement is an example of what type of risk response?

Acceptance

Mitigation

Transfer

Section: Volume D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Teaming agreements are often coming under sharing risk response, as they involves joint ventures to realize an opportunity that an organization would not be able to seize otherwise.
Sharing response is where two or more entities share a positive risk. Teaming agreements are good example of sharing the reward that comes from the risk of the opportunity.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Acceptance is a risk response that is appropriate for positive or negative risk events. It does not pursue the risk, but documents the event and allows the risk to happen. Often acceptance is used for low probability and low impact risk events.
B: Risk mitigation attempts to reduce the probability of a risk event and its impacts to an acceptable level. Risk mitigation can utilize various forms of control carefully integrated together.
C: Transference is a negative risk response where the project manager hires a third party to own the risk event.

Q64. Who should be accountable for monitoring the control environment to ensure controls are effective?

Risk owner

Security monitoring operations

Impacted data owner

System owner

Section: Volume D

Q65. You have been assigned as the Project Manager for a new project that involves development of a new interface for your existing time management system. You have completed identifying all possible risks along with the stakeholders and team and have calculated the probability and impact of these risks. Which of the following would you need next to help you prioritize the risks?

Affinity Diagram

Risk rating rules

Project Network Diagram

Risk categories

Explanation:
Risk rating rules define how to prioritize risks after the related probability and impact values are calculated. These are generally included in the organizational process assets and are refined for individual projects.

is incorrect. Affinity Diagram is a method of group creativity technique to collect requirements which allows large numbers of ideas to be sorted into groups for review and analysis. This is generally used in Scope Management and not applicable to this option D is incorrect. Risk categories are an output of the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process and not a tool to complete the process. Answer: C is incorrect. A Project Network diagram shows the sequencing and linkage between various project tasks and is not applicable to this

Q66. A risk owner should be the person accountable for:

the risk management process

managing controls.

implementing actions.

the business process.

Q67. Who is BEST suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness?

Control owner

Risk owner

Internal auditor

Compliance manager

Q68. A management team is on an aggressive mission to launch a new product to penetrate new markets and overlooks IT risk factors, threats, and vulnerabilities. This scenario BEST demonstrates an organization’s risk:

management.

analysis.

culture.

tolerance.

Section: Volume D

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The CRISC certification exam comprises four domains: Risk Identification, Assessment and Evaluation, Risk Response, Risk Monitoring, and IS Control Design and Implementation. These domains cover a wide range of topics, including risk assessment methodologies, risk response strategies, and the design and implementation of information systems controls.

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