Latest 2022 Realistic Verified CRISC Dumps – 100% Free CRISC Exam Dumps [Q512-Q536]

Posted On June 30, 2022

Latest 2022 Realistic Verified CRISC Dumps – 100% Free CRISC Exam Dumps

Get 2022 Updated Free ISACA CRISC Exam Questions and Answer

Certification Path

The Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Certification includes only one CRISC exams.

NEW QUESTION 512
Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because:

it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase.

structured analysis techniques exclude identification of controls.

structured programming techniques require that controls be designed before coding begins.

technical specifications are defined during this phase.

NEW QUESTION 513
As pan of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include m a business impact analysis (BlA)?

An assessment of threats to the organization

An assessment of recovery scenarios

industry standard framework

Documentation of testing procedures

NEW QUESTION 514
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the transmission of healthcare data across the internet?

Unencrypted data

Lack of redundant circuits

Low bandwidth connections

Data integrity

NEW QUESTION 515
You are the project manager of your enterprise. While performing risk management, you are given a task to identify where your enterprise stand in certain practice and also to suggest the priorities for improvements. Which of the following models would you use to accomplish this task?

Capability maturity model

Decision tree model

Fishbone model

Simulation tree model

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Capability maturity models are the models that are used by the enterprise to rate itself in terms of the least mature level (having nonexistent or unstructured processes) to the most mature (having adopted and optimized the use of good practices).
The levels within a capability maturity model are designed to allow an enterprise to identify descriptions of its current and possible future states. In general, the purpose is to:
Identify, where enterprises are in relation to certain activities or practices.

Suggest how to set priorities for improvements

Incorrect Answers:
D: There is no such model exists in risk management process.
B: Decision tree analysis is a risk analysis tool that can help the project manager in determining the best risk response. The tool can be used to measure probability, impact, and risk exposure and how the selected risk response can affect the probability and/or impact of the selected risk event. It helps to form a balanced image of the risks and opportunities connected with each possible course of action. This makes them mostly useful for choosing between different strategies, projects, or investment opportunities particularly when the resources are limited. A decision tree is a decision support tool that uses a tree-like graph or model of decisions and their possible consequences, including chance event outcomes, resource costs, and utility.
C: Fishbone diagrams or Ishikawa diagrams shows the relationships between the causes and effects of problems.

NEW QUESTION 516
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Leveraging existing metrics

Optimizing risk treatment decisions

Obtaining buy-in from risk owners

Improving risk awareness

Section: Volume D

NEW QUESTION 517
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?

Assign ownership of the risk response plan

Provide awareness in early detection of risk.

Perform periodic audits on identified risk.

areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.

NEW QUESTION 518
Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?

Preventive

Directive

Detective

Compensating

NEW QUESTION 519
You are an experienced Project Manager that has been entrusted with a project to develop a machine which produces auto components. You have scheduled meetings with the project team and the key stakeholders to identify the risks for your project. Which of the following is a key output of this process?

Risk Register

Risk Management Plan

Risk Breakdown Structure

Risk Categories

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The primary outputs from Identify Risks are the initial entries into the risk register. The risk register ultimately contains the outcomes of other risk management processes as they are conducted, resulting in an increase in the level and type of information contained in the risk register over time.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: All these are outputs from the “Plan Risk Management” process, which happens prior to the starting of risk identification.

NEW QUESTION 520
Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when establishing an organization’s risk management methodology?

Risk tolerance level

Benchmarking information

Resource requirements

Business context

Section: Volume D

NEW QUESTION 521
Which of the following approaches BEST identifies information systems control deficiencies?

Countermeasures analysis

Best practice assessment

Gap analysis

Risk assessment

NEW QUESTION 522
An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner’s FIRST course of action?

Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies

Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report

Determine if the impact is outside the risk appetite

Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management

Section: Volume D

NEW QUESTION 523
Which of the following is the MOST important technology control to reduce the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally?

Automated access revocation

Daily transaction reconciliation

Rule-based data analytics

Role-based user access model

NEW QUESTION 524
Which of the following approaches would BEST help to identify relevant risk scenarios?

Engage line management in risk assessment workshops.

Escalate the situation to risk leadership.

Engage internal audit for risk assessment workshops.

Review system and process documentation.

NEW QUESTION 525
You are the risk official of your enterprise. Your enterprise takes important decisions without considering risk credential information and is also unaware of external requirements for risk management and integration with enterprise risk management. In which of the following risk management capability maturity levels does your enterprise exists?

Level 1

Level 0

Level 5

Level 4

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
0 nonexistent: An enterprise’s risk management capability maturity level is 0 when:
The enterprise does not recognize the need to consider the risk management or the business impact

from IT risk.
Decisions involving risk lack credible information.

Awareness of external requirements for risk management and integration with enterprise risk

management (ERM) do not exists.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: These all are much higher levels of the risk management capability maturity model and in all these enterprises do take decisions considering the risk credential information. Moreover, in these levels enterprise is aware of external requirements for risk management and integrate with ERM.

NEW QUESTION 526
FISMA requires federal agencies to protect IT systems and data. How often should compliance be audited by an external organization?

Annually

Quarterly

Every three years

Never

Section: Volume B
Explanation:
Inspection of FISMA is required to be done annually. Each year, agencies must have an independent evaluation of their program. The objective is to determine the effectiveness of the program. These evaluations include:
* Testing for effectiveness: Policies, procedures, and practices are to be tested. This evaluation does not test every policy, procedure, and practice. Instead, a representative sample is tested.
* An assessment or report: This report identifies the agency’s compliance as well as lists compliance with FISMA. It also lists compliance with other standards and guidelines.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: Auditing of compliance by external organization is done annually, not quarterly or every three years.

NEW QUESTION 527
Which of following is NOT used for measurement of Critical Success Factors of the project?

Productivity

Quality

Quantity

Customer service

Section: Volume C
Explanation/Reference:
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: Productivity, quality and customer service are used for evaluating critical service factor of any particular project.

NEW QUESTION 528
The PRIMARY objective of testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation is to:

comply with the organization’s policy

ensure that risk is mitigated by the control

confirm control alignment with business objectives

measure efficiency of the control process

Section: Volume D

NEW QUESTION 529
Which of the following actions assures management that the organization’s objectives are protected from the occurrence of risk events?

Internal control

Risk management

Hedging

Risk assessment

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internal controls are the actions taken by the organization to help to assure management that the organization’s objectives are protected from the occurrence of risk events. Internal control objectives are applicable to all manual or automated areas. Internal control objectives include:
Internal accounting controls- They control accounting operations, including safeguarding assets and

financial records.
Operational controls- They focus on day-to-day operations, functions, and activities. They ensure that

all the organization’s objectives are being accomplished.
Administrative controls- They focus on operational efficiency in a functional area and stick to

management policies.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Risk management is the identification, assessment, and prioritization of risks followed by coordinated and economical application of resources. It is done to minimize, monitor, and control the probability and impact of unfortunate events or to maximize the realization of opportunities.
C: Hedging is the process of managing the risk of price changes in physical material by offsetting that risk in the futures market. In other words, it is the avoidance of risk. So, it only avoids risk but can not assure protection against risk.
D: Risk assessment is a process of analyzing the identified risk, both quantitatively and qualitatively.
Quantitative risk assessment requires calculations of two components of risk, the magnitude of the potential loss, and the probability that the loss will occur. While qualitatively risk assessment checks the severity of risk. The assessment attempts to determine the likelihood of the risk being realized and the impact of the risk on the operation. This provides several conclusions:
Probability-establishing the likelihood of occurrence and reoccurrence of specific risks, independently

and combined.
Interdependencies-the relationship between different types of risk. For instance, one risk may have

greater potential of occurring if another risk has occurred. Or probability or impact of a situation may increase with combined risk.

NEW QUESTION 530
Which of the following is MOST useful when communicating risk to management?

Risk policy

Audit report

Risk map

Maturity model

NEW QUESTION 531
Which of the following would present the MOST significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan?

Obsolete response documentation

Increased stakeholder turnover

Failure to audit third-party providers

Undefined assignment of responsibility

NEW QUESTION 532
Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management’s risk appetite?

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

Inherent risk

Risk likelihood and impact

Risk velocity

NEW QUESTION 533
You are the project manager of GFT project. Your project involves the use of electrical motor. It was stated in its specification that if its temperature would increase to 500 degree Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. If the machine overheats even once it will delay the project’s arrival date. So to prevent this you have decided while creating response that if the temperature of the machine reach 450, the machine will be paused for at least an hour so as to normalize its temperature. This temperature of 450 degree is referred to as?

Risk identification

Risk trigger

Risk event

Risk response

Explanation:
A risk trigger is a warning sign or condition that a risk event is about to happen. Here the warning temperature is 450 degree Fahrenheit, therefore it is referred as risk trigger.

is incorrect. Here risk event is 500 degree temperature, as when machine reaches this temperature it should have to be shut-down for 48 hours, which in turn will laid a great impact on the working of project. Answer: D is incorrect. Risk response here is shutting off of machine when its temperature
reaches 450 degree Fahrenheit, so as to prevent the occurring of risk event.

is incorrect. Risk identification is the process of the identifying the risks. This process
identifies the risk events that could affect the project adversely or would act as opportunity.

NEW QUESTION 534
Ben is the project manager of the CMH Project for his organization. He has identified a risk that has a low probability of happening, but the impact of the risk event could save the project and the organization with a significant amount of capital. Ben assigns Laura to the risk event and instructs her to research the time, cost, and method to improve the probability of the positive risk event. Ben then communicates the risk event and response to management. What risk response has been used here?

Transference

Enhance

Exploit

Sharing

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Enhance is a risk response to improve the conditions to ensure the risk event occurs. Risk enhancement raises the probability of an opportunity to take place by focusing on the trigger conditions of the opportunity and optimizing the chances. Identifying and maximizing input drivers of these positive-impact risks may raise the probability of their occurrence.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Transference is a strategy to mitigate negative risks or threats. In this strategy, consequences and the ownership of a risk is transferred to a third party. This strategy does not eliminate the risk but transfers responsibility of managing the risk to another party. Insurance is an example of transference.
C: Exploit response is one of the strategies to negate risks or threats that appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for positive impact on a project.
Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion is an example of exploit response.
D: Sharing happens through partnerships, joint ventures, and teaming agreements. Sharing response is where two or more entities share a positive risk. Teaming agreements are good example of sharing the reward that comes from the risk of the opportunity.

NEW QUESTION 535
What information is MOST helpful to asset owners when classifying organizational assets for risk assessment?

Potential loss to tie business due to non-performance of the asset

Known emerging environmental threats

Known vulnerabilities published by the asset developer

Cost of replacing the asset with a new asset providing similar services

NEW QUESTION 536
While developing obscure risk scenarios, what are the requirements of the enterprise?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.

Have capability to cure the risk events

Have capability to recognize an observed event as something wrong

Have sufficient number of analyst

Be in a position that it can observe anything going wrong

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The enterprise must consider risk that has not yet occurred and should develop scenarios around unlikely, obscure or non-historical events.
Such scenarios can be developed by considering two things:
Visibility

Recognition

For the fulfillment of this task enterprise must:

Be in a position that it can observe anything going wrong

Have the capability to recognize an observed event as something wrong

Incorrect Answers:
A, C: These are not the direct requirements for developing obscure risk scenarios, like curing risk events comes under process of risk management. Hence capability of curing risk event does not lay any impact on the process of development of risk scenarios.

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ABCs of CRISC Exam

The Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) test is one of the ISACA gems popular among candidates. Before arriving at the designated testing center, you must have the proper training needed in the four areas underlined in the syllabus, namely, IT Risk Identification, Risk Response Mitigation, IT Risk Identification, as well as Risk, Control Monitoring including Reporting. From there on, you can begin wrestling with the 150 questions in no more than 240 minutes. Passing such an exam will serve beneficial in your future associations with your coworkers, regulators, as well as internal and external stakeholders. Generally, it fits perfectly mid-career specialists who are adept in the world of enterprise risk management and control.

An A-list certification exam like the ISACA CRISC has a lot in store for its brave challengers. If you identify yourself as part of this daring crowd, you should pursue this certification by preparing diligently. It’s the first rule to keep in mind when beginning your venture as an ISACA candidate. So, in this post, you’ll learn the process of elimination when dealing with CRISC exam prep resources.

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